Zabjam

joined 5 months ago
[–] Zabjam@feddit.org -1 points 1 week ago (3 children)

No it is not. That's only an answer if one thinks that every sources bias is as bad as any other, which was rejected earlier as "outrages strawman". Under the assumption that sources can be more or less biased, it is worth questioning the bias and the statement "there's no such thing as a source with no bias" is a moot point.

[–] Zabjam@feddit.org -1 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (5 children)

Sure buddy. It is still irrelevant. It is not hypocritical to ciritice a source. You don't have to prove a different point to bring forward criticism. The only question should be "is the criticism valid?" And not "do you have a better point?"

[–] Zabjam@feddit.org -2 points 1 week ago (7 children)

But there is a spectrum. Or are you telling me that every source is as biased as any other?

[–] Zabjam@feddit.org -4 points 2 weeks ago (9 children)

How is it hypocritical? Either the sources are biased or not. The poster not providing proof for a counterargument is irrelevant. Or do you mean they should provide proof for the original sources being biased?